When Sanctification Occurs Before Justification
In this case it does:
I Corinthians 7:14
14 For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband; otherwise your children would be unclean, but now they are holy.
Here, the man hasn’t been saved, but he’s sanctified because his wife is saved. The children are also sanctified before they are old enough to understand the Gospel.
How does Paul’s use of ‘sanctified’ here fit with the idea that ‘sanctified’ refers to a specific experience after one is justified through faith in Christ? If Paul uses ‘sanctified’ in this way here, how is to justifiable to read Holiness-movement doctrine into the word ‘sanctified’ in other passages?
AMEN Thank You Jesus Christ
I think you mis-understand the meaning. The unbelieving spouses are won as a result of the testimony of the saved spouse, “1 Peter 3:1
Likewise, ye wives, be in subjection to your own husbands; that, if any obey not the word, they also may without the word be won by the conversation of the wives;”. Rightly divide The Word.
All Scripture must agree without contridiction.
Personally i feel that the “who or what”that sanctifies is important. There are perhaps levels of sanctification. Some things are sanctified by truth, by the washing of water and the word, by the holy ghost, and some times we sanctify stuff ourselves and in our own hearts. In this case others can be set apart by our relationship to God. Set apart for more grace, and more drawing of the spirit, or kept from harm in certain cases because the devil doesnt have full access to their lives because of their proximity to holiness.
One verse does not a doctrine make.
He wasnt trying to make a doctrine from verse. He was asking how it fits with the others.