I am guessing because the passage states Jesus rejoiced greatly in the Holy Spirit.If true, does this mean Matthew, who witnessed and also recorded the event (Matthew 11:225-27), had the gift of interpretation?Or were there other disciples Luke interviewed and told the event, did they have the gift of interpretation? [Of course I can anticipate justification by claiming Luke received this thought from the Holy Spirit]I will suggest a claim Luke 10:21is an example of Jesus speaking in tongues is more of reading into the passage a personal bias rather than such an example.Although the thought might parallel Paul's thought he would sing in tongues (1 Corinthians 14:15), and according to Paul's instructions, Jesus' praising God in tongues would only edify Himself and not necessarily those hearing Him rejoice. And if He did, we might assume the disciples at this time were unbelievers (! Corinthians 14:22).{I have also read where some believe Mark 5:41, when Jesus addressed the little girl with Talitha kum!, He addressed her in tongues, when Mark simply captures the Aramaic tongue. The same claim for Jesus' words on the Cross: Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani (Mark 15:34